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BPSC MDO EXAM-2021 MINERAL POLICY PAPER

BIHAR PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION MINERAL DEVELOPMENT OFFICER EXAM (MINERAL POLICY PAPER) -2021

1.       The Occupational Safety, health and Working Conditions Code, 2020 is not applied to

a)        The offices of the Central Government

b)        The offices of the State Government

c)       Any ship of war of any nationality

d)       All of the above

2.       Under the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020, ‘manufacturing process’ means any process for

a)       Pumping oil

b)       Preserving any article in cold storage

c)       Generating power

d)       All of the above

3.       The first Schedule of the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020 is related to

a)       List of notifiable disease

b)       List of matters

c)       List of industries involving hazardous processes

d)       List of notifiable disease and matters

4.       ‘Factory’ means any premises including the precincts thereof where manufacturing process is being carried on with the aid of power wheron (Act No. 37 of 2020)

a)       Twenty or more workers are working

b)       Ten or more workers are working

c)       Seven or more workers are working

d)       Thirty or more workers are working

5.       Under the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions code, 2020, wages’ does not include

a)       Basic pay

b)       Overtime allowance

c)       Dearness allowance

d)       Retaintaing allowance

6.       Who will be the Member Secretary (ex officio) of the National Board under the Occupational Safety, health and Working Conditions Code, 2020?

a)       Secretary, the Ministry of Labour and Employment

b)       Joint Secretary, the Ministry of Labour and Employment

c)       Chief Labour Commissioner (Central), New Delhi

d)       Director General, Health Services, New Delhi

7.       Which of the following Acts has been repealed under Section 143 of the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020?

a)       The Motor Transport Workers Act

b)       The Industrial Disputes Act

c)       The industrial Disputes Act

d)       The Maternity Benefit Act

e)       The Minimum Wages Act

8.       Under the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020, choose the incorrect statement from the following .

a)       The industrial premise includes a godown attached.

b)       ‘Hazardous’ means involving danger or potential danger both.

c)       Preserving or storing any article in cold storage is not called manufacturing process.

d)       Domestic services are not included in the industry.

9.       Under the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020, who among the following shall not be deemed to be the occupier of a factory?

a)       In the case of a firm, any one of the individual partners thereof

b)       In the case of an association of individuals, any member thereof

c)       In the case of a company, any independent director

d)       None of the above

10.    Under Section  4   of the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020, within how many days, the Appellate Officer shall dispose of the appeal?

a)       Thirty days

b)       Forty-five days

c)       Sixty days

d)       Ninety days

11.    What is the maximum penalty if any medical practioner fails to send a written report under Section 12 of the occupational Safety, health and Working Conditions Code, 2020?

a)       Five thousand rupees

b)       Ten thousand rupees

c)       Twenty thousand rupees

d)       Fifty thousand rupees

12.    Total how many Schedule are there in the Occupational Conditions Code, 2020?

a)       One

b)       Two

c)       Three

d)       Four

13.    How many representative members of employee will be Occupational Safety and Health Advisory Board?

a)       Three

b)       Four

c)       Five

d)       Seven

14.    Under  Section  22   of the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Code,2020, the Safety Committee shall be consist of

a)       Representatives of workers

b)       Representatives of employers and workers

c)       Representatives of the State Government  and  workers

d)       Representatives of the State Government, workers and employers

15.    Under Section 27  of the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020 , what will be the rate of extra wages for overtime?

a)       Two and a half times  the  rate of wages

b)       Twice the rate of wages

c)       One and half times the rate of wages

d)       One and quarter times the rate of wages

16.    Under Section 32 of the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020, a worker shall be entitled for how many leaves with wages in case of employed below ground mine?

a)       One day leave for every fifteen days

b)       One and quarter days leave for every thirty days

c)       One day leave for every twenty days

d)       One and half days leave for every twenty days

17.    Who among the following can exercise powers and duties of the Inspector-cum-Facilitator in respect of mines under the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020?

a)       District Magistrate

b)       District Judge

c)       Director of Mines

d)       All of above

18.    Chapter 11,  Part   2   of the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020 deals with

a)       Contract labour

b)       Inter-State migrant workers

c)       Audio-visual workers

d)       None of the above

19.    A person, who employes, whether directly or through any person, or on his behalf, or on behalf of any person, is called

a)       Employee

b)       Contract labour

c)       Labour

d)       Casual labour

20.    The employer of workers including women, audio-visual worker and contract labour below eighteen years of age in case of mines, shall be liable to penalty which shall not be less than

a)       Fifty thousand rupees

b)       One lac rupees

c)       Two lac rupees

d)       Ten thousand rupees

21.    The  Bihar  and  Orissa  Public  Demands Recovery Act,  1914   extends to

a)       whole of Bihar and  Orissa

b)       whole of Bihar and  Orissa

c)       whole of Bihar  and  Orissa except the district of Angul and Sambalpur

d)       whole of Bihar  and  Orissa except the district of Sambalpur

22.    According to the Bihar and Orrissa  Public  Demands  Recovery Act, 1914, ‘Certificate Officer’ means

a)       a Collector

b)       a Sub-Divisional Officer

c)       any Officer appointed by a Collector with the sanction of the Commissioner

d)       All of the above

23.    According to the Bihar and   Orissa  Public  Demands Recovery Act 1914,  ‘movable property’ includes

a)       growing crops

b)       standing timber

c)       grass

d)       All of the above

24.    According to the Bihar and Orissa Public Demands Recovery Act, 1914, ‘Certificate Holder’ means

a)       the company in whose favour a certificate has been filed under this Act

b)       the person against whom a certificate has been filed under this Act

c)       the government or person in whose favour a certificate has been filed under this Act

d)       None of the above

25.    A certificate filed under Section 4 of the Bihar Orissa  Public  Demands  Recovery   Act,  1914  may  be  executed by

a)       the Cetificate Officer in whose office the original certificate is filed

b)       the Certificate Officer to whom a copy of the certificate is sent for execution under Section 13 , Sub-Section 1

c)       Neither (A) nor (B)

d)       Both (A) and (B)

26.    What is  the mode of execution under Section 15 of the Bihar and Orissa  Public  Demands  Recovery   Act, 1914?

a)       By attachment

b)       By arresting

c)       By detaining in civil jail

d)       All of the above

27.    Which property is liable to attachment and sale in execution of a certificate under the Bihar  and   Orissa  Public  Demands  Recovery  Act,  1914?

a)       Houses

b)       Cheques

c)       Government Securities

d)       All of the above

28.    Which property is not liable to attachment and sale in execution of a certificate under the Bihar and  Orissa  Public Demands  Recovery Act, 1914 ?

a)       Wages of labourers

b)       Books of accounts

c)       Cooking vessels

d)       All of the above

29.    Under the Bihar and Orissa  Public  Demands  Recovery  Act,  1914, a person detained in civil jail in execution of a certificate may be so detained , where the certificate is for a demand of an amount exceeding fifty rupees, for

a)       A period of six months

b)       A period of six weeks

c)       A period of three months

d)       A period of one month

30.    Where a certificate-debtor has been committed to the civil jail under the Bihar  and  Orissa  Public  Demands  Recovery  Act, 1914  he may be released there from by the Collector on the ground of

a)       Contagious disease

b)       Death of relative

c)       Marriage of family member

d)       All of the above

31.    Notwithstanding anything in the Bihar  and  Orissa  Public  Demands  Recovery  Act, 1914 , the Certificate Officer shall not order the arrest or detention in the civil jail of

a)       A women

b)       A minor

c)       An unsound person

d)       All of the above

32.    Which one of the following Sections is related to appeal under the Bihar  and   Orissa Public  Demands  Recovery  Act, 1914,

a)       Section 50

b)       Section 55

c)       Section 56

d)       Section 60

33.    According to the Bihar and   Orissa   public  Demands  Recovery  Act,  1914, an appeal shall be filed against the original order f the Assistant Collector or Deputy  Collector

a)       to the Collector

b)       to the Commissioner

c)       to the Court of Sessions

d)       to the Civil  Judge

34.    Every appeal must be presented in case of order made by the Collector under the Bihar  and  Orissa  public  Demands  Recovery  Act, 1914, within

a)       Thirty days

b)       Sixty days

c)       Ninety days

d)       Fifteen days

35.     Under the Bihar  and  Orissa  Public  Demands  Recovery  Act,  1914 the Board of Revenue may revise any order passed by the

a)       Collector

b)       Commissioner

c)       Sessions  Judge

d)       Assistant  Collector

36.    Under Section 50 of the Bihar  and  Orissa  Public  Demands  Recovery  Act,  1914, when the Certificate Officer is satisfied that certificate-debtor is minor or of unsound mind, he shall permit in the proceeding

a)       represented by his wife

b)       represented by his son

c)       represented by a suitable person

d)       Represented by his relative

37.    Whoever fraudulently removes, conceals or transfers any property from being taken in execution of a certificate shall be punishable under Section……according to the Bihar  and   Orissa  Public  Demands  Recovery  Act,  1914

a)       201 of the IPC,  1860

b)       206 of the IPC,  1860

c)       451 of the IPC,  1860

d)       420 of the IPC,  1860

38.    Every Collector, Certificate Officer and Assistant Collector acting under the Bihar  and  Orissa  Public  Demands  Recovery  Act,  1914 shall have the power of a  

a)       Civil Court

b)       Criminal Court

c)       Revenue Court

d)       Tribunal

39.    Section 62 of the Bihar  Orissa  Public  Demands  Recovery  Act,  1914 deals with

a)       appeal

b)       revision

c)       review

d)       penalty

40.    How many Sections are there in the  Bihar  and   Orissa  Public  Demands  Recovery  Act,  1914?

a)       58

b)       68

c)       69

d)       82

41.    Under the Mines and Minerals [Development and Regulation ] Act, 1957, ‘minerals’ includes all, except

a)       natural gas

b)       mineral gas

c)       petroleum

d)       All of the above

42.    Under the Mines and Minerals [Development and Regulation] Act,  1957,  ‘minor minerals’ means

a)       building stones

b)       gravel

c)       ordinary clay

d)       All of the above

43.     Under Sub-Section (1) of Section 30B of the Mines and Minerals [Development and Regulation] Act, 1957, ‘Special Court’ means the

a)       Court of Sessions

b)       Collector

c)       High Court

d)       Special Judicial Magistrate

44.    Under the Mines and Minerals [Development and Regulation] Act, 1957, the maximum period for which a mining lease may be granted  (specified in Part A of the First Schedule) shall not exceed

a)       ten years

b)       twenty years

c)       thirty years

d)       fifty years

45.    The Mines and Minerals [Development and Regulation] Act, 1957 came into force on

a)       1st December, 1957

b)       1st June, 1958

c)       1st January, 1958

d)       1st July, 1957

46.    Under the Mines and Minerals [Development and Regulation] Act, 1957, the provisions of royalties in respect of mining lease are contained in

a)       Section 9

b)       Section 10

c)       Section 10A

d)       Section 13

47.  Under the Mines and Minerals [Development and Regulation] Act, 1957, any mineral specified in the Fourth Schedule is called

a)       minor mineral

b)       notified mineral

c)       mineral oil

d)       All of the above

48.    Which authority is empowered to terminate the prospective the Mines and Minerals [Development and Regualtion] Act, 1957?

a)       Central Government

b)       Central Government after consultation with the State Government

c)       State Government

d)       Mining Commissioner

49.    Under the Mines and Minerals [Development and Regulation] Act, 1957, which is metallic and non-metallic mineral?

a)       Asbestos

b)       Bauxite

c)       Gold

d)       All of the above

50.    Who shall be empowered to amend the First Schedule and the Fourth Schedule as to add or delete any mineral under the Mines and Minerals [Development and Regulation] Act, 1957?

a)       Central Government

b)       State Government

c)       State Government with the approval of the Central Government

d)       Both (A) and (B)

51.    Under the Mines and Minerals [Development and Regulation] Act, 1957, in any district affected by mining-related operations, the State Government shall establish a trust to be called the

a)       District Mineral Trust

b)       District Mineral Foundation

c)       District Mineral Exploration Trust

d)       District Mineral Exploration Foundation

52.    Under the Mines and Minerals [Development and Regulation] Act, 1957, whoever contravenes the provisions of Section 4  shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to

a)       two years

b)       three years

c)       five years

d)       ten years

53.    Part A of the First Schedule of the Mines and Minerals [Development and Regulation] Act, 1957 deals with which of the following minerals?

a)       Allanite and monazite

b)       Beryl

c)       Thorium

d)       Coal and lignite

54.    Under the Mines and Minerals [Development and Regualtion] Act,  1957, any operation undertaken for the purpose of exploring, locating or providing mineral deposit is called

a)       mining operation

b)       prospecting operation

c)       reconnaissance operation

d)       exploring operation

55.    Under the Mines and Minerals [Development and Regulation] Act, 1957, a mining lease may be renewed for a period not exceeding twenty years with the previous approval of the

a)       Central Government

b)       State Government

c)       National Mineral Exploration Trust

d)       National Green Tribunal

56.    Under the Mines and Minerals [Development and Regulation] Act, 1957, the object of the District Mineral Foundation shall be

a)       to work for the interest and benefit of persons and areas affected by mining-related operation

b)       to grant mining lease

c)       to determine the rates of which royalty of any mineral

d)       All of the above

57.    Under the Mines and Minerals [Development and Regulation] Act, 1957, the Judge of the Special Court shall be appointed by

a)       the Chief Minister of the State

b)       the Central Government with the occurrence of the Supreme Court

c)       the State Government with the concurrence of the High Court

d)       the Chief Minister of the State with the concurrence of the Governor of the State

58.    Section  26  of the Mines and Minerals  [Development and Regulation] Act, 1957 deals with

a)       protection of action taken in good faith

b)       power of entry and inspection

c)       delegation of powers

d)       relaxation of rules in special cases

59.    Which Section of the Mines and Minerals [Development and Regulation] Act, 1957 deals Government to make rules in respect of minerals?

a)       Section 11

b)       Section 12A

c)       Section 13

d)       Section 14

60.    The  state Government may make rule for regulating the grant in respect of minor minerals under the Mines and Minerals [Development and Regulation] Act, 1957 for

a)       quarry leases

b)       mining leases

c)       mineral concessions

d)       All of the above

61.    The Mineral Conservation and Development Rules, 2017 shall apply to all minerals, except

a)       petroleum and natural gas

b)       coal, lignite and sand for stowing

c)       minor minerals

d)       All of the above

62.    Under the Mineral Conservation and Development Rules, 2017, ‘abondonment of mine’ means

a)       final closure of a mine after extraction of total deposits thereof

b)       final closures of a mine after part of total deposits thereof is extracted

c)       final closures of a mine when the mining operations thereon have become uneconomic

d)       All of the above

63.    Under the Mineral Conservation and Development Rules,2017, who among the following shall be the competent authority to approve a mining plan for grant of a lease?

a)       Controller General

b)       State Government approved by the Central Government

c)       Officer of the Indian Bureau of Mines

d)       Controller of Mines

64.    Under Rule 45 of the Mineral Conservation and Development Rules, 2017, an annual return shall be submitted each year for the preceding financial year before

a)       1st day of January

b)       1st day of April

c)       1st day of July

d)       30th day of September

65.    Under the Mineral Conservation and Development Rules, 2017, ‘environment’ and ‘environmental pollution’ shall have the same meaning as assigned respectively to them in

a)       the Constitution of India

b)       the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

c)       the Mines and Minerals [Development and Regulation] Act, 1957

d)       None of the above

66.    Which Rule deals with the underground mining operation under the Mineral Conservation and Development Rules, 2017?

a)       Rule 11

b)       Rule 15

c)       Rule 17

d)       Rule 18

67.    Under Rule 28 of the Mineral Conservation and Development Rules, 2017 a notice is required to send to the authorised officer for temporary discontinuance of work. What is the minimum duration of temporary discontinuance of work in mines?

a)       Thirty days

b)       Sixty days

c)       Ninety days

d)       Six months

68.    Under Rule 22 of the Mineral Conservation and Development Rules, 2017, every mine shall have mine closure plans, which shall be of two types, namely

a)       Progressive mine closure plan and final closure plan

b)       annual mine closure plan and final closure plan

c)       progressive mine closure plan and mining closure plan

d)       annual mine closure plan and mining closure plan

69.    Under Rule 10(1) of the Mineral Conservation and Development Rules, 2017, who among the following shall be the competent authority to take decision with respect to a mining plan approved by any officer of the Indian Bureau of Mines?

a)       Geologist

b)       Controller of Mines

c)       Controller General

d)       Collector

70.    Every holder of a mining lease shall enjoy a whole-time mining engineer and a geologist under the Mineral Conservation and Development Rules, 2017 in case of

a)       category A mines

b)       category B mines

c)       both catergory A and B mines

d)       None of the above

71.    Under the Mineral Conservation and Development Rules, 2017, which statement is true regarding exercise of powers?

a)       Powers of the Regional Controller can be exercised by the Controller of Mines.

b)       Powers of the Controller of Mines can be exercised by the chief Controller of mines

c)       Powers of the Chief Controller of Mines can be exercised by the Controller General

d)       All of the above

72.    Rule 59 of the Mineral Conservation and Development Rules, 2017 deals with

a)       power to issue direction

b)       prohibition of deployment in certain cases

c)       examination of mineral deposit and taking samples

d)       duties of mining engineer

73.    Under the Mineral Conservation and Development Rules, 2017, duties of geologist and mining engineer are defined under

a)       Rule 56 and Rule 57

b)       Rule 61 and Rule 62

c)       Rule 69 and Rule 70

d)       Rule 72 and Rule 73

74.    What is the limitation period to apply for revision of the order under Rule 61 of the Mineral Conservation and Development Rules, 2017?

a)       Thirty days

b)       Forty-five days

c)       Sixty days

d)       Ninety days

75.    Under the Mineral Conservation and Development Rules, 2017, the holder of a mining lease shall send a notice of change in name of mine in

a)       Form-B

b)       Form-C

c)       Form-D

d)       Form-E

76.    Form-F of the Mineral Conservation and Development Rules, 2017 deals with

a)       notice of commencement of reconnaissance operation

b)       notice of intention of abandonment of mine

c)       notice of temporary discontinuance of mine

d)       notice of commencement of stopping

77.    Under the Mineral Conservation and Development Rules, 2017, the security or guarantee furnished by the holder of a mining lease is called

a)       Financial security

b)       Mining security

c)       financial assurance

d)       financial promise

78.    Under Rule 55 (1) (c) (2) of the Mineral Conservation and Development Rules, 2017, in case of category B mines, every holder of a mining lease shall employ

a)       A whole-time mining engineer and a part-time geologist

b)       A part-time mining engineer and a whole-time geologist

c)       A whole mining engineer and a whole-time geologist

d)       A part-time mining engineer and a part-time geologist

79.    Chapter 6 of the Mineral Conservation and Development Rules, 2017 deals with

a)       Sustainable mining

b)       Notice and returns

c)       Geological reports

d)       Miscellaneous

80.    Under the Mineral Conservation and Development Rules, 2017, which of the following is not correctly matched?

a)       Monthly and annual returns-Rule 46

b)       Power to issue directions-Rule 58

c)       Revision-Rule 61

d)       Geological reports-Rule 72

81.    ‘Department’ defined under the Bihar Minerals (Concession, Prevention of Illegal Mining, Transportation and Storage) Rules, 2019 means

a)       the Department of Mines and Minerals, the Government of Bihar

b)       the Department of Mines and Geology, the Government of Bihar

c)       the Department of Mining Officer, the Government of Bihar

d)       the Department of Mines Commissioner, the Government of Bihar

82.    ‘Person’ defined under the Bihar Minerals (Concession, prevention of Illegal Mining, Transportation and Storage) Rules, 2019 means

a)       a department of the Central Government

b)       a firm

c)       a company

d)       All of the above

83.    The role of the Collector is defined under the Bihar Minerals (Concession, Prevention of Illegal Mining, Transportation and Storage) Rules, 2019 in

a)       Rule 5

b)       Rule 7

c)       Rule 10

d)       Rule 18

84.    ‘Transport’ under the Bihar Minerals (Concession, Prevention of Illegal Mining, Transportation  and Storage ) Rules, 2019 means

a)       movement in any place in India

b)       movement from one place to another within the State of Bihar

c)       movement from Bihar State to Jharkhand State

d)       None of the above

85.    As per the Bihar Minerals (Concession, Prevention of Illegal Mining, Transportation and Storage) Rules, 2019, who is authorised to assist the Collector in ensuring implementations of the provisions of the Act and these Rules?

a)       Commissioner of Mines

b)       Superintendent of police

c)       Mining Officer

d)       Director of Mines

86.    The duration of the mineral concession for minor minerals shall be …… year under the Bihar Minerals  (Concession, Prevention of Illigal Mining, Transportation and Storage) Rules 2019.

a)       3

b)       5

c)       10

d)       20

87.    Under the Bihar Minerals (Concession, Prevention of Illegal Mining , Transportation and Storage) Rules, 2019, mining lease of granite shall be granted by the

a)       Collector

b)       Commissioner

c)       State Government

d)       Director of Mines

88.    Under the Bihar Minerals (Concession, Prevention of Illegal Mining, Transportation and Storage) Rules, 2019, the mining plan shall be prepared by a person who shall possess the

a)       qualification of a degree of mining engineering

b)       qualification of a postgraduate degree in geology

c)       Professional experience of five years of working in a supervisory capacity in the field of mining after obtaining the qualification as specified in (A) or (B)

d)       None of the above

89.    Under the Bihar Minerals (Concession), Prevention of Illegal Mining, Transportation and Storage) Rules, 2019, any order passed by the mining Officer shall be apprealable to the

a)       Commissioner

b)       Collector

c)       Sessions Judge

d)       Special Court

90.    Under the Bihar Minerals (Concession, Prevention of Illegal Mining, Transportation and Storage) Rules , 2019, who among the following shall not be the member of District Level Mining Task Force?

a)       Superintendent, of Police

b)       District Transport Officer

c)       Sub-Divisional Officer

d)       Conservator of Forest

91.    Under the Bihar Minerals (Concession, Prevention of Illegal Mining, Transportation and Storage) Rules, 2019, the meeting of District Level Mining Task Force shall be once in ……. Positively

a)       six months

b)       three months

c)       one month

d)       two months

92.     Under the Bihar Minerals (Concession, Prevention of Illegal) Mining, Transportation and Storage) Rules, 2019, what is the requisite fee in respect of application for quarrying permit?

a)       Rs. 5,000

b)       Rs. 10,000

c)       Rs. 50,000

d)       Rs, 1,00,000

93.    Chapter 16 of the Bihar Minerals (Concession, Prevention of Illegal Mining, Transportation and Storage) Rules, 2019 deals with

a)       appeals and revision

b)       reference

c)       review

d)       All of the above

94.    Rent, royalty or penalty payable under the Bihar Minerals (Concession, Prevention of Illegal Mining , Transportation and Storage) Rules , 2019 shall be recoverable through

a)       the Bihar and Orissa public Demands Recovery Act, 1914

b)       the Director of Mines

c)       the Collector

d)       Any of the above

95.    Which Rule of the Bihar Minerals (Concession, prevention of Illegal Mining , Transportation and Storage) Rules, 2019 deals with protection of environment?

a)       Rule 9

b)       Rule 14

c)       Rule 18

d)       Rule 21

96.    Any person aggrieved by any order of the Special Court may appeal to the Special Court may appeal to the ……. Under the Bihar Minerals (Concession, Prevention of Illegal Mining, Transportation and Storage ) Rules , 2019

a)       Collector

b)       Sessions Court

c)       High Court

d)       Commissioner

97.    Under the Bihar Minerals (Concession, Prevention of Illegal Mining, Transportation and Storage ) Rules, 2019, the minimum area for grant of a mineral concession shall be

a)       five hectares

b)       fifty hectares

c)       two hundred hectares

d)       five hundred hectares

98.    Who submits the final mine closure plan under the Bihar Minerals (Concession, Prevention of Illegal Mining Transportation and Storage ) Rules, 2019?

a)       The owner of a mineral

b)       An agent of a mineral concession

c)       A manager of a mineral concession

d)       All of the above

99.    Rule 36 of the Bihar Minerals (Concession, Prevention of Illegal Mining, Transportation and Storage) Rules, 2019 deals with

a)       conditions on which the quarrying permit shall be granted

b)       application for quarrying permit

c)       disposal of application for quarrying permit

d)       grant of quarrying permit

100.  On which date was the Bihar Minerals (Concession, Prevention of Illegal Mining Transportation and Storage ) Rules, 2019 published ?

a)       1st April, 2019

b)       17th September, 2019

c)       1st January, 2019

d)       6th December, 2019

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